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Let $\mathbb{Z}$ be defined with the usual metric. Show that every subset of $\mathbb{Z}$ is open in $\mathbb{Z}$.

I can write $\mathbb{Z}$ as $\bigcup_{n=0}^{\infty} \{n\}$ and then letting $B(n, \frac{1}{2})$ I get that $B(n, \frac12) \cap \mathbb{Z} = \{n\} $. So it seems that I can write any element in $\mathbb{Z}$ as the intersection of two open sets and thus it would be open? How can I formalize this, I seem to have a bit hard time doing that...?

2 Answers2

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By the usual metric on $\Bbb Z$ you seem to mean a metric (induced by the Euclidean distance function?) which would induce the discrete topology. Once you get points to be open, it's discrete. But then every single subset of $\Bbb Z$ would be open. So you are done.

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When you write $B(n, \frac 1 2) \cap \Bbb Z$, you seem to have in mind the idea of a "ball" in $\Bbb R$.

So you should forget the fact that $\Bbb Z$ is a subspace of $\Bbb R$. It is just a set, together with a metric function $d: \Bbb Z \times \Bbb Z \rightarrow \Bbb R_{\geq 0}$, sending $(x, y)$ to $|x - y|$ (viewed as a non-negative real number).

By definition, a subset $X$ of $\Bbb Z$ is open if for every element $x \in X$, there exists a positive real number $r$ such that the set $B(x, r) = \{y \in \Bbb Z: d(x, y) < r\}$ is contained in $X$.

You can then show that every subset $X$ is open by choosing $r$ above to be $\frac 1 2$.

WhatsUp
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  • How does $r = \frac{1}{2}$ imply that every subset $X$ is open? I have that $B(x, \frac{1}{2}) = { y \in \Bbb{Z} \mid d(x,y) < \frac{1}{2} }$, but how is this contained in $X$? –  Jan 30 '21 at 21:03
  • The set $B(x, \frac 1 2)$ has just one single element, namely $x$, because any other $y$ would have a distance at least $1$ from $x$. Since $x$ is an element of $X$, we have $B(x, \frac 1 2) \subseteq X$. – WhatsUp Jan 30 '21 at 21:49