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I have this exercice:

Let $$W = \{f \in L^1(\mathbb{R}) : \hat{f} \in L^1(\mathbb{R})\}$$

1- Prove that $f \in W$ iff $\hat{f} \in W.$

2- Let $f \in W.$ $f$ is continuous? $\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}f(x) = 0$?

Here are my answers. Can you confirm if they are correct please?

1- $f \in W \Rightarrow f \in L^1$ and $\hat{f} \in L^1.$ We have $F(\hat{f}) = \overline{F} (\check{\hat{f}}) = (2 \pi) \check{f}$

wa have $f \in L^1 \Leftrightarrow \check{f} \in L^1,$ so $\hat{\hat{f}} \in L^1(\mathbb{R})$ , so $\hat{f} \in W.$

$f = (2 \pi)^{-1} \overline{F}(\hat{f}) = (2 \pi)^{-1} F (\check{\hat{f}}) \in L^1 = (2 \pi)^{-1} \hat{\hat{f}} \in L^1,$ so $\hat{f} \in L^1$ and $f \in L^1,$ so $f \in W.$

Then the equivalence is prouved.

2- If $f \in L^1$ then $\hat{f}$ is continuous and his limit is 0 in $\infty$.

$f \in W \Leftrightarrow \hat{f} \in W \Rightarrow \hat{f} \in L^1 \Rightarrow \hat{\hat{f}}$ is continuous and $\lim_{x \rightarrow + \infty} \hat{\hat{f}} = 0$ because $f = (2 \pi)^{-1} \check{\hat{\hat{f}}}$

and $\lim f(x) = (2 \pi)^{-1} \lim \breve{\hat{f}} = \lim \hat{\hat{f}} (x) = 0.$

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1 Answers1

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Yes, the logic of your solution is correct. The details such as multiples of $2\pi$ cannot be completely verified because you did not specify which version of the Fourier transform you are using (there are several commonly used formulas, which differ by the placing of factors $2$ and $\pi$). Regardless of the convention used, the main point is that both direct and inverse Fourier transforms map $L^1$ into $C_0(\mathbb R)$. Therefore, $W\subset L^1(\mathbb R)\cap C_0(\mathbb R)$.