I am trying to find the minimum value, analytically, of a somewhat complicated function, and I've been struggling with it all day. It's complicated (to me) as the function is a sum of a periodic function (in $x$) and a function that is not periodic:
$$ f =\frac{\alpha}{L^2}\left[\cos^2 \left( \frac{\pi x}{L}-\frac{\pi}{2} \right) \right]^{-1} + \frac{\beta}{L^{3/2}}x^{-1/2} .$$
My approach has simply been taking the derivative and setting it to zero,
$$ \frac{df}{dx} = 0 $$
and then solving for $x$. First I considered each part individually as a sanity check. The right-hand side of the expression does not have a minimum (which makes sense), and the left-hand side does not have a global minimum, but rather periodic local minima with solutions,
$$ x = L \left( n - \frac{1}{2} \right) $$
where $n$ is the periodicity (I'm actually not sure how to solve for this, but it makes sense -- Thanks WolframAlpha). $f$ should have local minima though, and this is where I am running into some issues.
For the entire function, I can do the derivative,
$$ - \frac{\alpha}{L^3} \cot\left( \frac{\pi x}{L} \right) \csc^2\left( \frac{\pi x}{L} \right) - \frac{\beta}{L^{3/2}} \frac{1}{2x^{3/2}} = 0$$
but I am not able to solve for $x$. This makes sense as the minimum would now be different for each period, so taking the derivative of $f$ for an unspecified range would not make a ton of sense. I've been trying to think of a "work around".
I am only really interested in the range from $0$ to $L$ and there should be a minimum within that range. Just considering the range from $0$ to $L$, then the solution to the left-hand side should be,
$$ x = \frac{L}{2} $$
(this is intuitive) but I don't know how to actually solve $df/dx=0$ for $x$ in a specific range.
Any pointers would be greatly appreciated.
Jason
Would it make sense to Taylor expand the periodic function around $\pi /2$ prior to taking the derivative? Or would we expect the same result?
– Jason Rohr Feb 04 '21 at 15:17