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A simple heuristic of the first million primes shows that no prime number can be bigger than the sum of adding the previous twin primes.

Massive update: @mathlove made a comment that leaves me completely embarrassed. $13 > 7 + 5$ I don’t know how I missed it and I deeply apologize to everyone!

I ask anyone qualified to suggest any edits for the question.

$7 < 5 + 3$

$11 < 7 + 5$

$17 < 11 + 13$

$23 < 17 + 19$

At larger numbers:

$4886639 < 4886489 + 4886491$

$5389451 < 5388869 + 5388871$

$3155597 < 3154757 + 3154759$

I assume that if it could be proved, it would prove the twin prime conjecture of whether twin primes exist forever.

So I am not exactly seeking for a proof, but rather for possible explanations or references for why it is assumed true (or not)?

Also as the list grows, there seems to be a range for how small or big can a prime be in comparison to the sum of adding the previous twin primes.

As the list grows, a prime is usually never bigger or smaller than slightly above $50\%$ of the sum of the previous twin primes. Any references for such a range will be appreciated too.

*Update: When mentioning "the previous twin primes", I am implying to: $(107, 109), 113, 127, 131, (137, 139)$.

$131 < 107 +109$

Isaac Brenig
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    Could it have something to do with Bertrand's postulate? – Steven Alexis Gregory Feb 06 '21 at 03:17
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    Bertrand's Postulate says that the next prime number is less than 2× the last. But that is a very loose bound I think, as for "most" integers $n$ the next prime is no larger than $n +\log n < 2n$ or so. So the next prime should be only a factor of $1+\epsilon$ than the last by the time you are up to 4, 5, 6 digits – Mike Feb 06 '21 at 03:17
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    The last twin prime may be much smaller than the last prime, which separates it from Bertrand's Postulate in some ways. – open problem Feb 06 '21 at 04:59
  • It was proved already, for any $3$ consecutive prime numbers, check this. – rtybase Feb 06 '21 at 09:14
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    @rtynase It seems as if the proof is in regards to the sum addition of the previous primes and not previous twin primes – Isaac Brenig Feb 06 '21 at 09:18
  • @IsaacBrenig, does it matter? If it is true for any 3 consecutive prime numbers, it is true for consecutive triplets containing "previous twin primes" as well. Also, this answers the heuristic part of your question, from the beginning. – rtybase Feb 06 '21 at 09:24
  • @IsaacBrenig, I am rarely confusing anything. You asked for hints ;) – rtybase Feb 06 '21 at 10:08
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    @rtybase I am sorry, I am the one that is confused, You aren't confusing, but I thought that maybe you are confused by my description. Your hints are greatly appreciated and probably correct, but i still need a click in my brain ;) – Isaac Brenig Feb 06 '21 at 10:13
  • $13$ is bigger than $5+7$. – mathlove Feb 06 '21 at 11:00
  • @mathlove you are more than welcomed to answer or edit the question. I have already updated the question to give you credit. – Isaac Brenig Feb 06 '21 at 11:17
  • Is it known that there is a pair of twin primes between $n$ and $4n$? If there are no twin primes between $n$ and $4n$, and if $p$ is a prime between $2n$ and $4n$ (which exists by Bertrand's postulate), then $p$ is bigger than the sum of the preceding pair of twin primes, which are less than $n$. – bof Feb 06 '21 at 12:07
  • @bof It is not even known whether infinite many twin primes exist , not alone between $n$ and $4n$. – Peter Feb 06 '21 at 16:41

2 Answers2

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Let's modify the OP's observation as follows:

Let $(p,p+2)$ and $(q,q+2)$ be consecutive pairs of twin primes, e.g., $(107,109)$ and $(137,139)$. Then (conjecturally) $q\lt2p+2$.

This is, essentially, a Bertrand's Postulate for twin primes, and it's not hard to confirm that it holds for entries at the outset for the sequence $3,5,11,17,29,41,59,\ldots$. The basic explanation can be found in the heuristic twin-prime "theorem" $\pi_2(x)\sim2C_2x/(\ln x)^2$, although arguing that it (conjecturally) holds for all twin primes, not just for ones that are sufficiently large -- i.e., giving a (heuristic) twin-prime analog of the proof of Bertrand's Postulate -- seems problematic.

Remark: Amusingly, the modification proposed above of the OP's observation is technically agnostic with regard to the twin prime conjecture. Indeed, it would be easiest, in principle, to prove (or disprove) if there were an identifiable last pair of twin primes.

Barry Cipra
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Futher to my comments ...

For any $3$ consecutive primes (regardless of if they contain twin primes or not) $p_{n},p_{n+1},p_{n+2}$, it's true that $$\frac{p_{n+1}+p_{n}}{2}<p_{n+2}<p_{n+1}+p_{n}$$ In fact, $\forall p_{n+k}\geq p_{n+2}$ we have $p_{n+k} > p_{n+1}$ and $p_{n+k} > p_{n}$, thus $$\frac{p_{n+1}+p_{n}}{2}<p_{n+k}$$ For a fixed $k$, we can show that $$\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{p_{n+k}}{p_{n}}=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{p_{n+k}}{p_{n+1}}=1 \tag{1}$$ This means that for large enough $n$'s we have $$p_{n+k}<2p_{n} \text{ and } p_{n+k}<2p_{n+1}$$ Applying AM-GM yields $$p_{n+1}+p_{n}\geq 2\sqrt{p_{n+1}\cdot p_{n}}=\sqrt{2p_{n+1}\cdot 2p_{n}}> \sqrt{p_{n+k}^2}=p_{n+k}$$ for large enough $n$'s, or $$\frac{p_{n+1}+p_{n}}{2}<p_{n+k}<p_{n+1}+p_{n} \tag{2}$$ The range of the fixed $k$ depends on when $(1)$ gets less than $2$.


A few words about $(1)$, it is true because of this limit $$\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{p_{n+1}}{p_{n}}=1$$ then $$\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{p_{n+k}}{p_{n}}= \lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{p_{n+k}}{p_{n+k-1}}\cdot \lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{p_{n+k-1}}{p_{n+k-2}}\cdot ...\cdot \lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{p_{n+1}}{p_{n}}=1$$ again, for a fixed $k$!

rtybase
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  • but my question is not in regards to 3 consecutive prime numbers – Isaac Brenig Feb 06 '21 at 10:42
  • In the example provided by *Update in the post, you will notice that they are not 3 consecutive prime numbers – Isaac Brenig Feb 06 '21 at 10:43
  • @IsaacBrenig, it's a story line. It starts with 3 consecutive and ends with $p_{n}, p_{n+1}$ (which could be twin) and $p_{n+k}$, check $(2)$. – rtybase Feb 06 '21 at 10:57
  • now I get it. So the “could be twin” is completely probabilistic. But could there be an explanation, since the heuristic is 100% proof, or is it also just a Flux? – Isaac Brenig Feb 06 '21 at 11:06
  • Well, all the maths above is a pretty solid explanation of the pattern you see, for large enough $n$'s, of course. What's left 1) finding the range of $k$ and 2) finding the initial $N(k)$ for which $(2)$ is true for $\forall n \geq N(k)$. That won't be a trivial exercise though, but we know that such a range and $N(k)$ exist. – rtybase Feb 06 '21 at 11:13
  • Here come the downvoters ... I should have closed this account years ago :( – rtybase Feb 06 '21 at 15:25
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    I don’t understand why the downvote, your answer was still helpful. – Isaac Brenig Feb 06 '21 at 23:37