The proof I got for 1.6 a. in Baby Rudin is different from those I've seen elsewhere. I wonder if I made a mistake?
1.6: Fix $>1$. Prove that if $,,,$ are integers, $>0,>0$ and $=\frac{}{}=\frac{}{}$, then $(^)^{\frac{1}{}}=(^)^{\frac{1}{}}$
My attempt:
Since $=\frac{}{}=\frac{}{}$, then $mq = pn$
Therefore, $b^{mq} = b^{pn}$
So, $({b^m})^q = ({b^p})^n$
Therefore, $\bigl(({b^m})^q\bigr)^{\frac{1}{qn}} = \bigl(({b^p})^n\bigr)^{\frac{1}{qn}}$
So, $({b^m})^{\frac{1}{n}} = ({b^p})^{\frac{1}{q}}$