I am trying to make intuitive sense of the ability of irreducible, infinite markov chains possibly being null recurrent
- The way I see it, there is a possibility the process just keeps getting larger and larger towards a very distant state, so if we look at state 0, there is a non-0 probability of a path that leads forever away from 0
- This means that E(T00) will be infinite due to the inclusion of that path multiplied by a non-0 probability
However, from the property of recurrent classes, it says that fi = P(Tii < infinity) = 1, i.e. T must be finite.
Do these two statements clash?
Thank you so much for the help!