With induction we always start with a base case; What would the base case for this be? Choosing 1 seems nonsensical. Choosing infinity seems wrong as well.
Prove, using induction, that $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty}\dfrac{(\ln x)^k}x=0$.
With induction we always start with a base case; What would the base case for this be? Choosing 1 seems nonsensical. Choosing infinity seems wrong as well.
Prove, using induction, that $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty}\dfrac{(\ln x)^k}x=0$.
As I said in a comment, it's a strange idea, but let's give it a try: so we want to prove $$\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{\ln^k x}x=0$$ for $k=0,1,\ldots$ This is obvious for $k=0$. Defining $$f_k(x)=\frac{\ln^k x}x,$$ it isn't a good idea to use $f_{k+1}(x)=\ln x\,f_k(x)$ for the induction step, but $$f_{k+1}(x)=2^{k+1}\,f_k(\sqrt{x})\frac{\ln\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{x}}<2^{k+1}\,f_k(\sqrt{x})$$ will turn the trick.
Hint:
By L'Hospital, for $k>0$,
$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\log^k(x)}{x}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{k\log^{k-1}(x)}{x}.$$
Now the induction should be obvious.