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With induction we always start with a base case; What would the base case for this be? Choosing 1 seems nonsensical. Choosing infinity seems wrong as well.

Prove, using induction, that $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty}\dfrac{(\ln x)^k}x=0$.

Brian M. Scott
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  • Welcome to MSE. Please type your questions instead of posting images. Images can't be browsed and are not accessible to those using screen readers. If you need help formatting math on this site, here's a tutorial – saulspatz Feb 09 '21 at 19:25
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    The induction is on $k$, and the base case is $k=0$. – Brian M. Scott Feb 09 '21 at 19:25
  • @Brian M. Scott That's a reasonable guess, assuming that $k$ is a variable taking non-negative integer values (the OP doesn't tell us, unfortunately). On the other hand, induction doesn't seem very natural, since the induction step multiplies the expression by $\ln x$, and that tends to $\infty$ as $x\to\infty$. – NoNames Feb 09 '21 at 19:46
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    @saulspatz Yeah.... first post... dummy mistake – MeditationOrBust Feb 09 '21 at 19:52
  • @NoNames: my bet is that L'Hospital needs to be used. –  Feb 09 '21 at 19:53
  • @BrianM.Scott Oh, wow I feel stupid. Yeah that's obvious. – MeditationOrBust Feb 09 '21 at 19:53
  • @Yves Daoust That would be an option, but I try to avoid l'Hospital, mostly because nobody ever checks whether it's applicable in the problem at hand (and it can give funny results if it isn't). – NoNames Feb 09 '21 at 20:23
  • @NoNames: this is not what I mean. I mean that this is what the exercise is expecting. –  Feb 09 '21 at 20:48

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As I said in a comment, it's a strange idea, but let's give it a try: so we want to prove $$\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{\ln^k x}x=0$$ for $k=0,1,\ldots$ This is obvious for $k=0$. Defining $$f_k(x)=\frac{\ln^k x}x,$$ it isn't a good idea to use $f_{k+1}(x)=\ln x\,f_k(x)$ for the induction step, but $$f_{k+1}(x)=2^{k+1}\,f_k(\sqrt{x})\frac{\ln\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{x}}<2^{k+1}\,f_k(\sqrt{x})$$ will turn the trick.

NoNames
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Hint:

By L'Hospital, for $k>0$,

$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\log^k(x)}{x}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{k\log^{k-1}(x)}{x}.$$

Now the induction should be obvious.