$\text{If } \mathbb{N}=C_{1} \cup C_{2} \cup \ldots \cup C_{r} \text{ is a finite partition, then for some } j \in\{1,2, \ldots, r\}, \text{ there exist } a, b, c \in C_{j} \text{ with } a+b=c.$
$\Rightarrow \text { Given } r \in \mathbb{N}, \text { there exists a positive integer } N= N(r) \text { such that if }\{1,2, \ldots, N\}=C_{1} \cup C_{2} \cup \ldots \cup C_{r}, \text { is a finite partition, then for some } j \in\{1,2, \ldots, r\}, C_{j} \text { contains } a, b, c \text { with } a+b=c $
I am trying to understand the following proof to the given statement.
Suppose not. Then for each $N \in \mathbb{N},$ there is a coloring of $\{1,2, \ldots, N\}$ with $r$ colors that does not contain any monochromatic Schur triple. Use any of the $r$ colors to color the integers $\{N+1, N+$ $2, \ldots\},$ thus extending each coloring of $\{1,2, \ldots, N\}$ to a coloring of $\mathbb{N}$ with $r$ colors. Thus for each $N \in \mathbb{N}$, we have a corresponding coloring of $\mathbb{N}$. (*) Since only finitely many colors were used, by the Pigeonhole Principle there are infinitely many $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that the corresponding coloring uses the same color for the integer $1 .$ Consider only this subsequence of colorings and note that we are still left with an infinite set of colorings. We can now repeat this process in this subsequence. By passing to a subsequence, if necessary, we can assume that all the colorings use the same color for the integer 2 . Inductively, we can pass to a subsequence of the original list of colorings that fixes each $n \in \mathbb{N}$ with a single color. Taking the limit along this subsequence, we obtain a coloring of $\mathbb{N}$ that does not contain a monochromatic Schur triple, a contradiction.
I am stuck at (*). How does the author use the Pigeonhole Principle? What exactly is the process of taking sub-sequences?
There is a very similar question here which was helpful to me in proving what I want but I want to understand this proof too.