In my theoretical computer science course the professor left followed statement open (so we could create our own proof), but i really do not understand it: Let $s \in \mathbb{N} $ and $p \in Prime$. For every $a \in \{1,...,p-1\}$ let $h_a:\{0,...p-1\} \rightarrow \{0,...s-1\}$ be a function with $h_a(x)=$(ax mod p) mod s for all $x \in \{0,...,p-1\}$. Then $ H = \{h_a(x)$|$ 1 \leq a \leq p-1\}$ is a 2-univeral class of hashfunctions from $\{0,...p-1\}$ to $\{0,...,s-1\}$
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Did you already understand the definition of $2$-universal hash functions? – David Scholz Feb 14 '21 at 17:00
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Yes, or at least most of it – Luisa Feb 15 '21 at 07:55