This is not a homework problem, I'm just trying to better my understanding of this concept because it's so interesting yet counterintuitive to me and. I'm hoping someone will confirm that this is either correct or provide me with a logical explanation for why it's wrong.
Say you have $3$ die. They're all indistinguishable, 6-sided and fair. Let's say you roll all $3$ die at the exact same time. $2$ of the die land on the table, and $1$ rolls off and hits the floor.
You see that the $2$ die on the table are both $3$'s. What is the probability that the die on the floor is also a $3$?
My understanding is that the correct probability that 3rd die is a 3 should be $1/16$.
$3$ die were rolled for a total of $6^3$ possible combinations = $216$ and by revealing that there are two 3's, we reduce our sample space to the following 16 possibilities:
of which only {3, 3, 3} satisfies our event, thus 1/16.
Because the die are unordered, the 3rd die would not be considered an independent event. If I said I have a red die, a blue die, and a green die and after rolling them I saw that the red and blue die landed on the table, then the green die that lands on the floor would be considered to be a 1/6 chance.
I'd also appreciate any additional information that might help me further wrap my head around why this is.
