Consider (for fixed $r$) the following function: $$f(z) = \frac{1}{1-z-z^2-\cdots-z^r} = \frac{1}{1-z\frac{1-z^r}{1-z}}=\sum_{j=0}^\infty\left(z\frac{1-z^r}{1-z}\right)^j$$ (Assume everything is ok with regards to convergence.)
The text I am reading claims that if we were to write $f(z)$ in the form $\sum_{n=0}^\infty A_n z^n$, that $$A_n = \sum_{j,k} (-1)^k \binom{j}{k}\binom{n-rk-1}{j-1}$$
I have no idea where this comes from. Could anyone point me in the right direction? Thanks!
Edit: Also, the text states without explanation that in the case $r=2$, the coefficients are the Fibonnaci numbers:
$$\frac{1}{1-z-z^2} = 1 + z + 2z^2 + 3z^3 + 5z^4 + 8 z^5 + 13 z^6 + \cdots$$
Is this a non-trivial result, or am I just not seeing something?