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How exactly does that work? I would be grateful for a proof but barring that just the name of the theorem, so I can look it up myself.
My work/thoughts so far:
If we start with a system like the one below:
$$y+az=b$$ $$x+fz=g$$
I guess I could solve both sides for z and get something like:
$$z=\frac{b-y}{a}$$ $$z=\frac{g-x}{f}$$
Which I guess implies that: $$\frac{b-y}{a}=\frac{g-x}{f} $$ $$y=\frac{a(g-x)}{f}+b $$
Which is really just another way of writing $y=kx+m$, so for every value of z, the relationship between x and y can be written as a line. Since there is an infinite number of z, that means we can vizualize all the possible lines as an infinite plane.
If we could define a vectpr z we could restrict the possible solutions to the values in the plane that satisfiy both $y=\frac{a(g-x)}{f}+b $ and the equation for z. It just so happens we have two expressions for z, $z=\frac{b-y}{a}$ and $z=\frac{g-x}{f}$.
I dont' know, where do I go from here?