Remark: Initially, I have incorrectly copied over the problem. The edit below shows the correct one and how I checked that the function really does satisfy the "new" pde.
I have a pde of the following form
$$xu_{x}+yu_{y}+xyu_{z}=0$$
with the boundary condition $$u(x,y,0)=x^2+y^2.$$
I solved the pde with the method of characteristic and got the solution $$u(x,y,z)=x^2+y^2-2(\frac{x}{y}+\frac{y}{x})z.$$
However, the other part of this problem asks me to explain the following.
We know that $u$ is constant along characteristics and we know that $u(x,y,0)\geq0$ then why is $u(1,1,1)=-2$.
What I was thinking is that even though we know that $u$ is going to be constant on each characteristic the fact that $u(1,1,1)=-2$ means that no characteristic curve begging on $(x,y,0)$ will pass through the point $(1,1,1)$. Am I correct in thinking this is the answer or is there something else that I forgot about.
EDIT: Just to check that the solution really does satisfy the pde:
$$x(2x-2\frac{z}{y}+2\frac{yz}{x^2})+y(2y-2\frac{z}{x}+2\frac{xz}{y^2})-2xy(\frac{x}{y}+\frac{y}{x})=$$ $$=x^2-\frac{xz}{y}+\frac{yz}{x}+y^2-\frac{yz}{x}+\frac{xz}{y}-x^2-y^2=0$$ Which really does satisfy the equation.