It is well-known that the Pontryagin dual of a discrete locally compact abelian group must be compact, which means that $\operatorname{Hom}(\mathbb{Q}, \mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z})$ must be compact with the compact-open topology (where $\mathbb{Q}$ is taken with the discrete topology). However, one can prove that $\operatorname{Hom}(\mathbb{Q}, \mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}) = \mathbb{R}^2$ (or at least I think so, the below proof could have a mistake I have overlooked). This leaves me wondering what topology does $\mathbb{R}^2$ have to make it compact.
We start with the short exact sequence $0 \to \mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z} \to 0$. Since $\mathbb{R}$ is divisible, $\operatorname{RHom} (\mathbb{Q}, \mathbb{R}) = \mathbb{R}$. Also, $\operatorname{RHom}(\mathbb{Q}, \mathbb{Z}) = \mathbb{R}[-1]$ (see this reference). Also, $\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}$ is divisible so $\operatorname{Ext}(\mathbb{Q}, \mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}) = 0$. We now use the induced long exact sequence
$$ 0 \to \mathbb{R} \to \operatorname{Hom}(\mathbb{Q}, \mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}) \to \mathbb{R} \to 0$$
However, $\mathbb{R}$ is injective so $\operatorname{Ext}(\mathbb{R}, \mathbb{R}) = 0$ and the extension must be trivial. Hence, $\operatorname{Hom}(\mathbb{Q}, \mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}) \cong \mathbb{R}^2$.
Due to the indirect computation, I find it hard to see how the compact-open topology applies to this group. What topology does $\mathbb{R}^2$ have in these circumstances?