Why would you WANT to "make both sides equal". That's a very unusual thing to do.
More often people want to "solve for k" or "prove an identity" as Joe suggested.
I would start by trying to "solve for k", If it turns out that k can be any number, then it is an identity.
You have $\frac{k(2k+ 1)}{k(k+1)}= \frac{2k+ 2}{k+2}$.
The first thing you can do is cancel the "k" in both numerator and denominator in the left. That leaves $\frac{2k+ 1}{k+ 1}= \frac{2k+ 2}{k+ 2}$.
Eliminate the fractions (I really don't like fractions!) by multiplying both sides by $(k+ 1)(k+ 2)$
$(2k+ 1)(k+ 2)= (2k+ 2)(k+ 1)$
$2k^2+ 5k+ 2= 2k^2+ 4k+ 2$
Subtract $2k^2+ 4k+ 2$ from both sides to get
k^2= 0.
NO, this is not an identity. It is only true for k= 0.