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Why is $\;\dfrac{4}{x(4-x)} \geq 1\;$ is not equal to $\;4 \geq x(4-x)\;$?

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Probably a really dumb question but I just don't see it :(

Calvin Khor
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  • this is a very good question – Some Guy Mar 01 '21 at 22:21
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    If an inequality is multipled by a negative quantity, then it is reversed – J. W. Tanner Mar 01 '21 at 22:21
  • It is not a dumb question. Pupils are ever so often taught rules that they then blindly follow without understanding. This question shows to me that you want to understand. Hope you will get a good answer to this. –  Mar 01 '21 at 22:24
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    Because $ a\ge b$ does NOT imply $ac \ge bc$ unless $c > 0$. And as we don't know whether $x(4-x)> 0$ or not we don't know that $\frac 4{x(x-4)}\cdot x(x-4) \ge 1 \cdot x(x-4)$.... After all. if $a \ge b$ and $x < 0$ then $ac \le bc$ so if $x(x-4) < 0$ we will conclude $\frac 4{x(x-4)}\cdot x(x-4) \le 1 \cdot x(x-4)$ – fleablood Mar 01 '21 at 22:26
  • Maybe it is easier to note that $4\ge x(x-4) > 0$ and $\frac 4{x(x-4)} \ge 1$ DO both mean the exact same thing. But $4\ge x(x-4)$ and $\frac 4{x(x-4)}\ge 1$ do not. DO you see the difference and why it is important? – fleablood Mar 01 '21 at 23:49
  • @SomeGuy This is not a very good question. – amWhy Mar 01 '21 at 23:58
  • Truth be told, no answer to your question will save you. Because this question is actually the basic inequality questions that are taught in all schools and never at the contest level. You should definitely open your textbook and go to the basic inequalities section. Your solution is yourself. Good luck. – lone student Mar 02 '21 at 00:15

6 Answers6

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Other answers (and comments) have already explained the potential pitfalls of multiplying both sides of an inequality by a quantity whose sign is sometimes negative. Here is an alternative approach that might help:

$$\begin{align} {4\over x(4-x)}\ge1 &\iff{4\over x(4-x)}-1\ge0\\ &\iff{4-x(4-x)\over x(4-x)}\ge0\\ &\iff{4-4x+x^2\over x(4-x)}\ge0\\ &\iff{(2-x)^2\over x(4-x)}\ge0\\ &\iff x(4-x)\gt0\quad\text{(since }(2-x)^2\text{ is always non-negative)}\\ &\iff0\lt x\lt4 \end{align}$$

Remark: In general the quadratic in the numerator will not be a perfect square, in which case the final steps are a bit more complicated (you can wind up with more than one interval where the inequality holds). But the problem here was concocted to have a simple answer.

Barry Cipra
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Actually, $\frac4{x(4-x)}\geqslant1$ is equivalent to $4\geqslant x(4-x)$ if $x\in(0,4)$ since, in that case, $x(4-x)>0$.

But if $x>4$ or $x<0$, then $x(4-x)<0$, and therefore $\frac4{x(4-x)}\geqslant1\iff4\color{red}\leqslant x(4-x)$.

  • Blatant PSQ. Did you really need to answer this? Do not suggest questions to close until you stop answering questions like this. – amWhy Mar 01 '21 at 23:12
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Note that when you multiply by a negative number, you need to "switch" the equal sign. A very basic example: $ -1 < 4 $ multiplied by $-1$ becomes $ 1 > -4$.

In your case you multiply both sides with $x(4-x)$ or $4x - x^2$. This is positive for $x\in(0,4)$. So this becomes:

$$ 4\leq x(4−x)\,for\,x\in[-\infty, 0] \cup [4,\infty] $$ $$ 4≥ x(4−x)\,for\,x\in[0, 4] $$

Daan Seuntjens
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Suppose, for example, $x < 0$, I.e. $x$ is negative.

This would mean that $4-x>4$ and therefore $x(4-x)<0$. In other words $x(4-x)$ is negative and therefore less than or equal to $4$.

Now, you know that:

$$4 \geq x(4-x)$$

As $x(4-x)$ is negative, you also know $\frac{1}{x(4-x)}$ is negative so if you multiply the inequality above by $\frac{1}{x(4-x)}$ you have to flip the sign (as multiplying both sides of an inequality by a negative number means you have to flip the sign).

So you get:

$$\frac{4}{x(4-x)}\leq 1$$

Long story short: if you multiply an inequality by a negative number on both sides you must flip the sign around. This means when $x(4-x)<0$ the two inequalities aren't the same.

JDoe2
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The difference is:

We can have $4 \ge x(x-4)$ if $x(x-4) \le 0$.

But we can not have $\frac 4{x(x-4)} \ge 1$ if $x(x-4) \le 0$.

(if $x(x-4) = 0$ then $\frac 4{x(x-4)}$ doesn't exist. And if $x(x-4) < 0$ then $\frac 4{x(x-4)} < 0 < 1$.)

(Otherwise, when $x(x-4) > 0$ then $\frac {4}{x(x-4)} \ge 1$ and $4 \ge x(x+4)$ are the same thing.)

So $4\ge x(x-4)$ is true more often and will have more solutions than $\frac 4{x(x-4)}\ge 1$.

(Although, come to think of it, $4 \ge x(x-4) > 0$ and $\frac 4{x(x-4)} \ge 1$ will have the exact same solutions.....)

======

To solve $4 \ge x(x-4)$ we have

$x(x-4) = x^2 - 4x \le 4$ so

$x^2 - 4x + 4 \le 8$ so

$0 \le (x -2)^2 \le 8$ so

$0 \le x - 2 \le \sqrt 8$ so

$2-\sqrt 8 \le x \le \sqrt 8+2$

But notice these solutions will include cases where $x(x-4) \le 0$.

.....

TO solve $\frac 4{x(x-4)}\ge 1$ we must consider three cases:

Case 1: $x(x-4) < 0$.

Then $\frac 4{x(x-4)} \ge 1 \implies$

$\frac 4{x(x-4)} x(x-4) \le 1\cdot x(x-4)\implies$

$4 \le x(x-4) < 0$. But that is impossible.

Case 2: $x = 0$

Then $\frac 4{x(x-4)} = \frac 4 0$ and that is impossible.

Case 3: $x(x-4) > 0$.

Then we have either $x > 0$ and $x-4 > 0$; so $x> 4$. Or $x < 0$ and $x-4 < 0$; so $x < 0$. So we are restricted to requiring $x > 4$ or $x < $. In other words $0 \le x \le 4$ is impossible.

But if we make that restriction then

$\frac 4{x(x-4)} \ge 1 \implies $

$\frac 4{x(x-4)} x(x-4) \ge 1\cdot x(x-4) \implies$

$4 \ge x(x-4)$.

But note !!!VERY IMPORTANT!!!! we can only do this because we are assuming $x(x-4) > 0$. If we didn't know $x(x-4) > 0$ we could not say this.

Now we solved $4 \ge x(x-4)$ above and got $2-\sqrt 8 \le x \le 2 +\sqrt 8$.

But we MUST combine it with $x \not \in [0, 4]$.

So the solution here is $2-\sqrt 8 \le x < 0$ or $4 < x < 2 + \sqrt 8$.

.....

These two solutions are the same EXCEPT $4 \ge x(x-4)$ includes cases where $x(x-4) \le 0$ (which occures if and only if $0\le x \le 4$) while $\frac 4{x(x-4)} \ge 1$ does not include those.

[SO as the solutions to $4\ge x(x-4)$ is $[2-\sqrt 8, 2 + \sqrt 8]$ then the solutions to $\frac 4{x(x-4)} \ge 1$ is $[2-\sqrt 8, 2+\sqrt 8] \setminus [0, 4] = [2-\sqrt 8, 0) \cup (4, 2+\sqrt 8]$.

fleablood
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If $\dfrac4{x(4-x)}\ge 1$, $\:x(4-x)$ is positive, hence we can multiply both sides by $x(4-x)$ and therefore it implies $4\ge x(4-x)$.

However, the other way, $ 4\ge x(4-x)$ necessarily happens in particular if $(4-x)<0$, and in this case it is equivalent to $\dfrac4{x(4-x)}\le 1$.

Bernard
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