There's a question in my book that asks us to show how the Hopf bifurcation theorem fails for the system $$\dot{r}=\mu r$$ $$ \dot{\theta}=1$$.
I don't see how it does though. From what I understand, you need to examine the eigenvalues of the jacobian at the origin. Here, I'm getting $\lambda=\mu\pm i2$.
So $\Re (\lambda(0)) = 0$,
$\Im (\lambda(0)) \neq 0$
and $\frac{d\Re}{d\mu}\neq 0$.
Does that not mean that there is a hopf bifurcation at $\mu=0$ and that the theorem works? I don't really understand the question so I'd appreciate if someone could explain.
The notes suggested using Matlab to plot the system but I don' see how that helps either.
The Hopf Bifurcation Theorem according to my notes is:
Let $x = f (x,\mu)$, $x \in \mathcal{R}^n$, $\mu \in \mathcal{R}$, have a fixed point $x =0$ for all μ. Suppose the eigenvalues of $Df(0,\mu)$ have negative real part, except for a pair $\lambda(\mu) = \alpha(\mu)+i\omega(\mu)$ and its complex conjugate $\bar{\lambda}(\mu)$, for which $\lambda(0) =i\omega$, and suppose (transversality) $\alpha'(0) \neq 0$ (i.e. the eigenvalues cross the imaginary axis at a non zero rate). Then for small $\mu$, there exists a one-parameter family of periodic orbits, $x_\mu(t)$, in either $\mu ≥ 0$ or $\mu ≤ 0$, whose stability is opposite to that of the coexisting fixed point.