Maybe is a silly question but I am confused...so I hope someone can help me.
Is the convergence of the Taylor series uniform?
To be more specific. We know for example that
$\displaystyle{ e^x = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{ n!} \quad}$ , $\displaystyle{ \sin x = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{ (-1)^{n+1} }{ (2n+1)!} x^{2n+1} }$
Now the question is: Does these series of functions converges uniformly to $e^x$ and $\sin x$ respectively?
And one more question: Every Taylor series converges (pointiwise) for every $x$ so has radius of convergence $\infty$ right?
These questions came up when I was studying and saw I my notes that the lecture interchange the summation and the integration of the Taylor series, for example
$\displaystyle{ \frac{1}{ 1+ x^2} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^n x^{2n}, |x|<1 \implies \arctan x = \int_{0}^{x} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^n t^{2n} dt= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^n \int_{0}^{x} t^{2n} dt }$
and I can understand how can we do this if the convergence in not uniform, which in this example is not since $\displaystyle{ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} x^n = \frac{1}{1-x} }$ pointwise but not uniform.