I am studying the (somewhat old-fashioned) "Analytical Conics" by D.M.Y. Sommerville (3rd edition, 1933). (It's fascinating, but the order of presentation of material makes it come across as muddled sometimes).
I have found this definition in Chapter V: The Hyperbola, section 2.
"... chords through the center are diameters."
Okay, straightforward enough: he does not actually define "chord", but by extrapolating from its definition for the circle I assume he means a line segment joining 2 points, whether they be on the same branch or not. Hence this definition is simple and straightforward.
However, when I seek to confirm this online, I get the following mumbo-jumbo, usually accompanied by a diagram in which the line so constructed is anything but the locus of midpoints:
"The locus of the mid point of a system of parallel chords of a hyperbola is called a diameter of the hyperbola and the point where the diameter intersects the hyperbola is called the vertex of the diameter."
Now I have run it up on GeoGebra, constructed a system of parallel chords, constructed a line through its midpoints, and indeed, it passes neatly through the centre:
... and indeed, it is definitely the case that the locus of the midpoints do in fact form a diameter.
The question I have is: if it is indeed blindingly simple to define a diameter as (the infinite production in both directions of) a chord which passes through the centre, why use the complicated definition?
And, having used this definition, why accompany it with a horribly misleading diagram? Examples of such are ubiquitous:
Is there a subtlety here by which it is not always the case that "a chord through the centre (produced appropriately) is the locus of a system of midpoints of parallel chords"?
In due course I will work out the algebra to prove the above, and satisfy myself that it is indeed true (I can't find it in Sommerville -- but then its presentational style is dense and I haven't studied the chapter on hyperbolas line by line yet). I will no doubt also find it is true for all conic sections, as I believe it is a projective property: it's obviously true for circles, and I expect there is a form for the parabola that allows it to make sense for it there as well.
Now I understand, from the language in which many of such pages are couched, that this is something which is often pitched at elementary-school level or perhaps high-school level. Here, for example, is a particularly patronising example:
https://www.toppr.com/ask/content/story/amp/diameter-of-hyperbola-52033/
... so it is obviously something which is considered pretty basic, mathematically speaking (although I can't remember anything about this in my own long-ago formal studies of geometry via the Kleinian approach).
Is anyone able to shed any light on this from the point of view of a coherent approach? That is, the equivalence of the definitions of a diameter being straightforward to demonstrate and (presumably) fairly straightforward to prove (although I haven't done this formally myself to my own satisfaction), why is it (in general) not even mentioned in the literature?
EDIT: I have checked for a parabola, and it appears (as you'd expect by a projective argument) that the "diameters" of a parabola (as defined by the locus of the midpoints of parallel chords) are in fact parallel to the axis. This is consistent with the "centre" of a parabola being the point at infinity of the axis of the parabola.


