Part 1: Finding the MLE
Using your notations, let $\widehat{\phi}$ be the maximum likelihood estimate. The maximum likelihood estimator uses $\widehat{\phi} = \text{argmin}_\phi \text{ Loss}(y_i - \widehat{y_{i,\phi}})$
Assuming some $\phi$, how would you predict each of the values? you would predict the mean. Thus each prediction you would make is $\frac{1}{ \phi}$
From here, we have
\begin{align*}
\widehat{\phi} &= \text{argmin}_\phi\quad \sum\limits_i \text{ Loss}(y_i - \frac{1}{\phi})\\
&= \text{argmin}_\phi\quad \sum\limits_i (y_i - \frac{1}{\phi})^2
\end{align*}
To get $\widehat\phi$, we set the derivative of the above expression equal to 0, giving us:
\begin{align*}
\sum\limits_i 2(y_i - \frac{1}{\widehat\phi}) &= 0\\
\sum\limits_i y_i &= \sum\limits_i \frac{1}{\widehat\phi}\\
\sum\limits_i y_i &= \frac{n}{\widehat\phi}\\
\widehat\phi &=\frac{n}{\sum\limits_i y_i}
\end{align*}
Part 2: Is MLE Biased?
Yes, it is biased. To see this we need to invoke the gamma distribution, as we want to take $n$ exponential distributions and sum them (note that the exponential is a special case of gamma distribution with first parameter $1$.).
Our steps will be as follows: we will first assume a parameter $\lambda$ and generate m samples. The sum of these $\sum_i X_i$ would follow a gamma distribution. Since the MLE estimate is $\frac{1}{\sum_i X_i}$, we need the distribution of $\frac{1}{\sum_i X_i}$. This follows the inverse gamma distribution. We take the expectation of this inverse gamma distribution and compare with the lambda we started with, for some fixed n number of samples.
Let us first assume a parameter $\lambda$ to generate the samples, and see if MLE returns to us lambda after n samples. The distributions are:
\begin{array}{c|c}
Random Variable & Distribution\\ \hline
X_i & exp(\lambda) = Gamma(1,\lambda)\\ \hline
\sum\limits_{i=1}^nX_i & Gamma(n,\lambda)\\ \hline
\frac{1}{\sum\limits_{i=1}^nX_i} & InvGamma(n,\lambda)
\end{array}
Now expectation of the inverse gamma$(n,\lambda)$ distribution is $\frac{\lambda}{n-1}$. Therefore taking expectation on both sides,
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E \left[\frac{1}{\sum\limits_{i=1}^n X_i}\right] &= \mathbb E \left[InvGamma(n,\lambda)\right] = \frac{\lambda}{n-1}\\
\frac{1}{n} \mathbb E \left[\frac{n}{\sum\limits_{i=1}^n X_i}\right] &= \frac{\lambda}{n-1}\\
\end{align*}
But $\mathbb E \left[\frac{n}{\sum\limits_{i=1}^n X_i}\right] = \mathbb E [\widehat{\phi}]$. Therefore,
\begin{align*}
\frac{1}{n} \mathbb E [\widehat{\phi}] &= \frac{\lambda}{n-1}\\
\mathbb E [\widehat{\phi}] &= \frac{n\lambda}{n-1}\\&\neq \lambda\\
\end{align*}
Therefore $\widehat{\phi}$ is not an unbiased estimator of $\lambda$