Let ${{\mathfrak g}}$ be a finite-dimensional Lie-algebra and ${{\mathfrak r}}$ a solvable Lie-ideal, does ${{\mathfrak r}}$ contain ${Z({\mathfrak g})}$ ?
I know this is true for ${{\mathfrak r}} = Rad ~ {\mathfrak g}$, but why is it true in general?
In particular, I am trying to understand Theorem 7 in the proof of Ado by Terence Tao(https://terrytao.wordpress.com/2011/05/10/ados-theorem/): "Let ${{\mathfrak g}}$ be a finite-dimensional (abstract) Lie algebra, and let ${{\mathfrak r}}$ be a solvable ideal in ${{\mathfrak g}}$. Then ${[{\mathfrak g},{\mathfrak g}] \cap {\mathfrak r}}$ is an (abstractly) nilpotent ideal of ${{\mathfrak g}}.$"
I do not understand one of his last arguments: "To establish the claim in the abstract case, we simply use the adjoint representation, which effectively quotients out the centre ${Z({\mathfrak g})}$ of ${{\mathfrak g}}$ (which will also be an ideal of ${{\mathfrak r}})$ to convert an finite-dimensional abstract Lie algebra into a concrete Lie algebra over a finite-dimensional space."
Thank you!