I am trying to compute $\pi_1(S^1 \vee S^2$) by Van Kampen. I know Hatcher has a solution but I need to verify if my approach is correct and rigorous. I have seen a previous post on this topic, but I am using a different decomposition of $X=S^1 \vee S^2$, so please bear with me.
Let $z$ be the common point (wedge point). Let $x_0$ be another point on $S^2$, and $x_1$ be another point on $S^1$.
Then let $Q=X\backslash x_0$, and $P=X\backslash x_1$.
Clearly, $X=Q\cup P$, and $Q,P$ both open.
Now, $\pi_1(Q)=\mathbb Z$, since the punctured sphere is homeomorphic to $R^2$, which def. retracts to the point $z$ and we are left with just $S^1$.
Similarly, $\pi_1(P)$ is trivial, since punctured $S^1$ def. retracts to $z$, and we are left with $S^2$, which is simply connected.
Also, $\pi_1(P\cap Q)$ is wedge of punctured sphere with punctured circle, both of which def. retract to $z$, and hence the wedge is simply connected.
So, now by Van Kampen, we obtain that $\pi_1(P\cup Q)$ is isomorphic to $\pi_1(P)_{*\pi_1(P\cap Q)}\pi_1(Q)$, which is just $\mathbb Z$.
Is this proof rigrous? Have I made some assumptions that have not been justified?