In school we spend several hours factorizing polynomials. But now as I've started gainnning some knowledge on polynomial rings, it suddenly occurred to me that none of the books I practiced then, suggested the factorized form of the polynomial $x^2-4$ as $$(cx+2c)\left(\frac{1}{c}x-\frac{2}{c}\right)$$ for arbitrarily chosen $c\ne0$ even though both of $(cx+2c),\left(\frac{1}{c}x-\frac{2}{c}\right)\in\mathbb R[x].$ They always took the form for $c=1$ as the answer. Why is it so? When I was said to factorize a polynomial in school what did I actually told to perform?
Added: Due to Wikipedia, "the aim of factoring is usually to reduce something to “basic building blocks”, such as numbers to prime numbers, or polynomials to irreducible polynomials." Well here $(cx+2c),\left(\frac{1}{c}x-\frac{2}{c}\right)\in\mathbb R[x]$ are irreducible. However for $6,-3$ is not a prime factor.