I have a quick question about a proof I was reading. The proof is basically asking about the continuity of the translation operator in the $L^1$-norm. Here is a snippet of the proof
I am not sure how their integral over $\mathbb{R}^d$ turned into just an integral over $E$ (first line to second). It seems to me that this is not too clear. Unless I am missing something very simple...
Thanks in advance!