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I have a quick question about a proof I was reading. The proof is basically asking about the continuity of the translation operator in the $L^1$-norm. Here is a snippet of the proofenter image description here

I am not sure how their integral over $\mathbb{R}^d$ turned into just an integral over $E$ (first line to second). It seems to me that this is not too clear. Unless I am missing something very simple...

Thanks in advance!

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