Definition VII.1. In Nagata's Modern General Topology construct Topology of pointwise convergence as follows:
Given $x_1,\cdots,x_n\in X$ and $O_1,\cdots, O_n\in \mathcal{T}_Y$, let $$[x_1,\cdots,x_n;O_1,\cdots, O_n]=\{f\in C(X,Y): f(x_i)\in O_i\}\;.$$ Then the family $$PC(X, Y)=\{U\subset C(X, Y) : \text{for any } f \in U \text{ we have }f \in [x_1,\cdots,x_n;O_1,\cdots, O_n]\subset U \text{ for some } n\in \Bbb N, x_1,\cdots,x_n\in X \text{ and } O_1,\cdots, O_n\in \mathcal{T}_Y\}$$ is called the topology of pointwise convergence on the set $C(X, Y)$.
1) $PC(X,Y)$ is a topology or a base for a topology on $C(X,Y)$?
The other references are defined point-open topology on $C(X)$ as follows:
Let $\Bbb F(X)$ denote the set of all finite subset of $X$. for $A\in \Bbb F(X)$ and an open set $V$ of $\Bbb R$, define $[A,V]=\{f\in C(X): f(A)\subseteq V\}$. The collection $\{[A,V]:A\in\Bbb F(X), V\text{ open in }\Bbb R\}$ forms a subbase for the point-open topology on $C(X)$.
2) Do these two definitions are equivalent?