Let $f$ be continuous on $[0, 1]$ with $f(0) = f(1)$. Prove that there exists $c ∈ \left[0,\frac{1}{2}\right]$ such that $f(c) = f\left(c+\frac{1}{2}\right)$.
So, I know I'm supposed to use the Intermediate Value Theorem, and I can see generally how it's gonna be used, but I'm kind of confused how to? 0 and 1 are not opposite signs, so IVT can't be applied, can it? And then for the IVT corollary, it states $f(0)=f(1)$, so we can't use that? Will it be one where we assume to the contrary or...?