Started my proof by assuming that $A \subset B$ and $C \subset D$. Then I proceeded by supposing that $x \in A \setminus D$. So $x \in A$ and $x \notin D$. Is it valid to conclude that $x \notin C$ since $C \subset D$? I'm assuming it is always true but I'm not sure if it is a valid argument I can use for formal proofs.
Aside from that, I'm also lost as to how I should continue my proof. For now I continued with my proof mentioned above and added "since $A \subset B$, then $x \in B$. Also, $x \notin C$ so it follows that $x \in B \setminus C$. Therefore, $A \setminus D \subset B \setminus C$. " Although, I'm not really sure if this is a valid argument. For instance, I'm having doubts with $x \in B$ and $x \notin C$ since $x$ is also not an element of $D$. Therefore, there's a possibility that $x \in B \setminus D$ (??). Any help with regards as to how I should properly and formally prove this will be a great help.
Edit: Thanks a lot to everyone who verified my approach!
$A \setminus D$– jjagmath Apr 22 '21 at 16:44