For context:
Theorem. There is a unique real number $x$ such that for every real number $y$, $xy+x-4=4y$.
Proof. We show the existence by choosing $x=4$. Substituting it in gives. $xy+x-4=4y+4-4=4y$. Suppose there is another real number $z$ such that for every real number $y$, $zy+z-4=4y$. Add $4$ to both sides gives $z(y+1)=4(y+1)$. From this we see, that $z=4=y$. Thus $x=4$ is a unique solution.
By cases, it would be:
- Case: $y \ne -1$: We divide both sides by $(x+1)$ and get $z=4$
- Case: $y = -1$: Leads to $0=0$ which is true, but does it say anything?
The $y=-1$ case bugs me. I can see, that the solution must be $z=4$ but I am somehow not convinced by the proof by cases as the second case only leads to $0=0$ and says nothing about $z$. How could I show rigorously what I see?
Source: It is an exercise from "How to prove it" by Daniel J. Velleman. The exercise 3.6.2 is "Prove that there is a unique real number $x$ such that for every real number $y$, $xy+x-4=4y$."