I am studying Algebraic Geometry with this book.
Through the Serre's criterion for affinity, we can know that $H^1(X,\mathcal{F})=0$ then $X$ is affine with some conditions on $X$ and $\mathcal{F}$. I have a question about the proof.
In the book, the proof starts with choosing a closed point $x\in X$ and an affine open neighborhood $U$ of X. Then let $\mathcal{M}$ be the sheaf of ideals of $\mathcal{O}_X$ which defines the reduced closed subscheme of $X$ whose underlying space is $\{x\}$, and $\mathcal{J}$ be the sheaf of ideals on $X\setminus U$.
With above, the author says, $0 \to \mathcal{MJ} \to \mathcal{J} \to \mathcal{J}/ \mathcal{MJ} \to 0$ is an exact sequence of sheaves.
- What is the sheaf $\mathcal{MJ}$ means? Actually, I have never seen the notation $\mathcal{FG}$ for two sheaves $\mathcal{F}$, $\mathcal{G}$.
- It seems like that the underlying topological spaces of each sheaves in the sequence are different, but then how can we think about their sequence?