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Let $X$ and $Y$ be two topological spaces. Let $f : X \to Y$ and $g: Y \to X$, such that

  1. $f$ and $g$ are surjective;
  2. $f$ and $g$ are continous.

Does this imply that $X$ and $Y$ are homeomorphic?

It seems similar to Bernstein's theorem in set theory, and many of the topological properties like compactness, connectedness, etc are getting preserved.

Any help would be appreciated.

Kr Dpk
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3 Answers3

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  • For a continuous surjection $S^1 \mapsto [-1,+1]$ take the first coordinate projection map $(x,y) \mapsto x$.
  • For a continuous surjection $[-1,+1] \mapsto S^1$ take the map $x \mapsto (\cos(2 \pi x),\sin(2\pi x))$.
Lee Mosher
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No. There exists a continuous surjection $f$ between $\mathbb{R}$ and $\mathbb{R}^2$ (see here), and a continuous surjection $g$ between $\mathbb{R}^2$ and $\mathbb{R}$ (obvious), but they are not homeomorphic.

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No it does not.

Consider $[0,1]$ and $[0,1]^2$. The projection on any component certainly constitutes a continuous surjection $[0,1]^2 \rightarrow [0,1]$.

Conversely, there are space filling curves, giving continuous surjections $[0,1]\rightarrow [0,1]^2$.

But $[0,1]$ and $[0,1]^2$ are not homeomorphic. Deleting a point in the interior of $[0,1]$ results in a disconnected space, which is not true, when deleting a point in the interior of $[0,1]^2$.

Jonas Linssen
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