A proof of the title was posted on physics stack exchange asking for explanation of the steps, I had written an explanation of the steps as an answer. However, after writing this answer there has been something which has been bothering me about the proof.
In the last step, I had assumed that for two surfaces $S_1$ and $S_2$ attached to the same boundary $C$ parameterized by $(a,b)$ and $(u,v)$ that reparametrizing $(a,b) \to (u,v)$ for $S_1$ that the boundary of $S_1$'s parameterization in the $(u,v)$ coordinates is same that of $S_2$
For naive surfaces, I found this to be true. Consider a circle cantered at origin of the x-y plane and consider the following surfaces attached to it: A cone, a portion of paraboloid , a hemisphere. It is clear that for all these surfaces that the interior of the circle maps entirely onto the surface.
For explicit surfaces which don't work: Suppose I took the hemisphere and portion of paraboloid as the surfaces involved in the proof, if the hemisphere's equation was initially expressed in spherical and I turned the coordinates into cartesian, I'd find that the domain of the circle and the paraboloid as same.
Now, consider these two surfaces:
Clearly they share same boundary but I can't imagine that both of their parameterization domains are same (if they have any that is)[ Eg: Suppose I parameterized both in (x,y)]. Hence, my question: Is the statement in the question general? If so, how does one extend the proof from the physics stack exchange post for an arbitrary surface.
