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I tried root and ratio tests but it didn't work. Also, i can't use integral tests (and other "uncommon" ones) in this homework.

(Prove that the series is convergent) $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{n}{n+1}\right)^{n^2} = \frac{1}{2} + \left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^4 + \left(\frac{3}{4}\right)^9 + ...$$

amWhy
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4 Answers4

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The Bernoulli Inequality says that for $n\ge1$, $$ \left(1+\frac1n\right)^n\ge1+\frac{n}{n}=2 $$ Thus, $$ \left(\frac{n}{n+1}\right)^{\large n^2}\le\left(\frac12\right)^n $$ Thus, we can compare this to a geometric series.

robjohn
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Even if you don't know many limits, note that by expanding $(1+{1\over n})^n$ and dropping all terms except the two lowest order terms, one has $(1+{1\over n})^n\ge 1+n\cdot{1\over n}=2$. Thus $$0\le\Bigl({n\over n+1}\Bigr)^{n^2}={1\over\bigl[ \,(1+{1\over n})^n\,\bigr]^n}\le {1\over 2^n}.$$ The convergence of your series now follows by comparison to the convergent geometric series $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty (1/2)^n$.

(Using the "well-known" limit $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty}(1+{1\over n})^n=e$, you can conclude that the terms $(1+{1\over n})^n$ eventually exceed $2$; this will suffice for comparing your series with $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty (1/2)^n$. Of course, if you do make use of this limit, using the Root Test is somewhat easier.)

David Mitra
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  • I saw that this question could be handled using the Bernoulli Inequality and did not see any other mention of it, so I answered. Now I see that our answers are quite similar. If you wish, I will remove my answer. – robjohn Jun 07 '13 at 16:57
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The root test should work.

Notice the following equivalencies:

$$\left(\frac{n}{n+1}\right)^{n^2}=\left[\left(\frac{n}{n+1}\right)^n\right]^n= \frac{1}{\left[\left( 1+{1\over n}\right)^n\right]^n}$$

The right-hand side should look very familiar. You can certainly use the limit comparison test to prove convergence of your series.

amWhy
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  • This is a little problematic in that $\left(1+\frac1n\right)^n$ increases to that limit, so the inequality is not in the right direction. However, Bernoulli's inequality guarantees that $\left(1+\frac1n\right)^n\ge2$. – robjohn Jun 07 '13 at 17:02
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We can interpret the series as power series evaluated at 1. Using the Hadamard formula we obtain $1/R = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} ((\frac{n}{n+1})^{n^2})^\frac{1}{n} = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} (1+\frac{-1}{n+1})^{n+1} \frac{n+1}{n} = e^{-1}$ so $R = e > 1$ and the series converges.