One of the solutions tried to write the integral a $$\int e^{x^2+x}((2x+1)p(x) + p’(x))dx$$
Where $p(x)=2x^2+bx+c$
I have no idea why they chose the lead coefficient to be $2$.
Going with this, $b=1$ and $c=0$
So $$\int e^{x^2+x} ((2x+1)(2x^2+x)+4x+1)dx $$
Now even after substituting $x^2+x=t$, the integration still seems to be mess, not in the form of the desired $\int e^t(f(t)+f’(t))dt$ form.
Is there a better solution or a better explanation for this one?