In my quantum physics book (Quantum Mechanincs Second edition B.H. Bransden & C.J. Joachain) in a chapter of Galilean transformation and Schrödinger equation there is a couple of weird equations.
Let $\vec r, \vec u , \vec v \, \in \mathbb R^3$ and $t\in \mathbb R$ and $\Psi:\mathbb R^4 \to \mathbb R$. Which are related by the following relations: $$\vec r=\vec u+\vec vt \tag{1}$$ $$\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\Psi(\vec r,t)=\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\Psi(\vec u+\vec vt,t)-\vec v \cdot \nabla_{\vec u}\Psi(\vec u+\vec vt,t) \tag{2}$$ $$\nabla_{\vec r}\Psi(\vec r,t) = \nabla_{\vec u}\Psi(\vec u+\vec vt,t) \tag{3}$$
What I find very peculiar is the second term on the right hand side of (2). If I were to substitute $\vec r$ into the right hand side of (2) then for (2) to maintain its equality the following should be true $$\vec v\cdot \nabla_{\vec u}\Psi(\vec u + \vec v t,t)=\vec v\cdot \nabla_{\vec u}\Psi(\vec r,t)=\vec v \cdot \nabla_{\vec r}\Psi(\vec r,t)=0$$
The above could very well be true but then what is the purpose of this redundant-looking term. And if this should be on physics.stack instead please migrate.
Thanks in advance!
Quantum Mechanincs Second edition B.H. Bransden & C.J. Joachain page 255