In Spivak's Calculus, two established properties of real numbers are:
(1) If $a$ is any number, then $a+0=0+a=a$
(2) For every number $a$, there is a number $-a$ such that $a+(-a)=(-a)+a=0$.
Looking at (2) and letting $a:=0$, we have:
$0 +(-0)=0$
Applying (1), where $a:=(-0)$, we have $-0=0$
Given the above claim, my question is about the minimum value that the following function obtains on the closed interval $[0,1]$:
$ f(x)= \begin{cases} 1&\text{if}\, x \text{ is irrational}\\ 1/q&\text{if}\, x=p/q \text{ in lowest terms}\\ \end{cases} $
My solution manual says that, "There is no minimum".
However, given that $0 = -0$, I have a moment of doubt with this statement.
Specifically, $0 = -0 \implies \frac{0}{q}=-\frac{0}{q} \implies \frac{0}{q} = \frac {0}{-q}$
Letting $q=1$, I feel like an argument could be made that the minimum is $-1$ for this function along this interval.
Do we simply assert that the convention for $0$ expressed as a fraction in lowest terms is $\frac{0}{1}$?