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I have the following statement to prove:

Prove any $C^2$ function of the form $z=f(x+at)+g(x-at)$ is a solution of wave equation $\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial t^2} = a^2 \cdot \frac{\partial ^2 z}{\partial x^2}$.

I tried it many times getting the same wrong anwer. My development was:

Let $u(x,t) = x+at, r(x,t) = x-at$

$\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial z}{\partial u}\cdot \frac{\partial u}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial z}{\partial r}\cdot \frac{\partial r}{\partial x}$

$=\frac{\partial z}{\partial u}+\frac{\partial z}{\partial r}$

$\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial x^2}= \frac{\partial }{\partial x}[\frac{\partial z}{\partial u}] +\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}[\frac{\partial z}{\partial r}]$

$=[\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial u^2} \cdot \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} +\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial r \partial u} \cdot \frac{\partial r}{\partial x}] + [\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial u\partial r} \cdot \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} +\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial ^2r} \cdot \frac{\partial r}{\partial x}]$

$=[\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial u^2} +\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial r \partial u}] + [\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial u\partial r} +\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial ^2r} ]$

$=\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial u^2} +2\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial r \partial u} +\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial ^2r} $ (Using Schwarz theorem)

By the other hand, to calculate $\frac{\partial ^2 z}{\partial t^2}$ i got:

$\frac{\partial z}{\partial t}=\frac{\partial z}{\partial u}\cdot \frac{\partial u}{\partial t}+\frac{\partial z}{\partial r}\cdot \frac{\partial r}{\partial t}$

$=\frac{\partial z}{\partial u}\cdot a+\frac{\partial z}{\partial r}\cdot (-a)$

$\frac{\partial ^2 z}{\partial t^2} = a\frac{\partial }{\partial t}[\frac{\partial z}{\partial u}] - a\frac{\partial z}{\partial t}[\frac{\partial z}{\partial r}]$

And solving:

$=a\cdot[\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial u^2} \cdot \frac{\partial u}{\partial t} + \frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial r \partial u} \cdot \frac{\partial r}{\partial t} ]- a[\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial u \partial r} \cdot \frac{\partial u}{\partial t} + \frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial r^2} \cdot \frac{\partial r}{\partial t}]$

$=a\cdot[\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial u^2} \cdot a + \frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial r \partial u} \cdot (-a) ] - a[\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial u \partial r} \cdot a + \frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial r^2} \cdot (-a)]$

$=a^2\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial u^2} -2a^2\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial r \partial u} + a^2\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial ^2r} $

$=a^2[\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial u^2} -2\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial r \partial u} + \frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial ^2r} ]$

but the sign of the term $-2a^2\frac{\partial ^2z}{\partial r \partial u}$ does not match, so where is my mistake?

ESCM
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  • Why not just use the fact that $$z_x=f'(x+at)+g'(x-at)$$ $$z_t=af'(x+at)-ag'(x-at)$$ etc... – Matthew H. May 26 '21 at 23:28
  • Well, the first partial derivative of $z$ respect to $u$ is the partial derivative of $f$ respecto to $u$ and the partial derivative of this respecto to $r$ is zero since $f$ does not depend of $r$, right? – ESCM May 26 '21 at 23:30
  • Just prove it when $g=0$ first. Because if $z_1,z_2$ are solutions of the wave equation then $z_1+z_2$ is. Then the case of $g(x-at)$ follows from the case of $f,$ because the equation does not depend on the sign of $a.$ – Thomas Andrews May 26 '21 at 23:31

1 Answers1

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Your computation is correct, but it obscures the important fact that:

$$\frac{\partial^2z}{\partial r\partial u}=0.$$

Your computation works for any: $$z=h(u,r),$$ rather than the specific form of $z$ in the question.

Since $z=f(u)+g(r),$ $\partial z/\partial u=f’(u).$ And the derivative of this with respect to $r$ is $0.$


You only have to prove it for $z=f(x+at).$

If $z_1,z_2$ satisfy the equation, then so does $z_1+z_2.$

And from the case $f(x+at),$ we get $g(x-at)=g(x+(-a)t)$ satisfies the wave equation for $-a,$ but the wave equation does not depend on the sign of $a.$

Thomas Andrews
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  • That is good, thanks. Anyways, where i made my mistake? – ESCM May 26 '21 at 23:36
  • You’ve completely elided the step of how you computed $\partial^2z/\partial t^2,$ so it is hard to tell now you got a minus sign. But it is much easier to writing things out in terms of $f,f’,f’’$ and $g,g’,g’’.$ – Thomas Andrews May 26 '21 at 23:45
  • So, i already edited that with the steps – ESCM May 26 '21 at 23:54
  • Oh, I see the error. $$\frac{\partial^2z}{\partial r\partial u}=0.$$ You can’t see this from this approache, but $z=f(u)+g(r)$ makes it clear. Then $\partial z/\partial u=f’(u).$ And the derivative of this with respect to $r$ is $0.$ – Thomas Andrews May 27 '21 at 00:13