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According to the following Wolfram alpha calculator link, this hypergeomtric function is a complex number$${}_1F_0(\pi/4;2)=(-1)^{\pi/4}=-0.78121\ldots-i×0.62425\ldots$$

I dont get it. I know that raising (-1) to a real power can give a complex number, what i dont get is how adding an infinite amount of real numbers equals a complex number. How?

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The radius of convergence of the power series is $1$, so the value at $z=2$ isn't obtained by summing a series of real numbers, but instead by analytic continuation. In this case, it's $$ {}_1 F_0(a;;z) = (1-z)^{-a} . $$ According to the Wolfram documentation: “For $p=q+1$, HypergeometricPFQ[alist,blist,z] has a branch cut discontinuity in the complex plane running from $1$ to $\infty$.”

Hans Lundmark
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