Convolution has been put synonymous to falting B. S. Grewal, Ed. 44, p.p. 748 ; which I now know (after Googling) comes from the faltings's theorem. But the relation is not well explained neither in the book nor on the web.
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This makes no sense... What exactly does the book say? – Hans Lundmark Jun 04 '21 at 20:41
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1Are you asking about a theorem due to Gerd Faltings, or about what in German is known as "Faltung" and in English, as "Convolution"? – kimchi lover Jun 04 '21 at 20:42
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And aren't you confusing "Faltings's Theorem" with the "Faltung theorem"? – kimchi lover Jun 04 '21 at 21:01
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@HansLundmark , The words are quoted as under: "FG is called the Convolution* or falting of F and G" – Sachin Jun 04 '21 at 21:07
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@kimchilover I could be wrong with the Faultings's Theorem part. But most certainly I am writing the spelling printed in the book. However, Googling your term Faltung Theorem , there is strong possibility of a misprint. Can't be sure on that, hence the question. – Sachin Jun 04 '21 at 21:10
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2Obviously a typo in your book. It should read "Convolution or faltung of $F$ and $G$." – kimchi lover Jun 04 '21 at 21:20
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3If the book is from 1965 (as stated in your link), it would have predated Faltings's theorem. Gerd Faltings himself would have been 11 years old in 1965. Which is to say that I think the connection you've found is a red herring, and that the German "Faltung" (or maybe even the Swedish "faltning") at some point turned into "falting". – Anyon Jun 04 '21 at 22:17