I cannot make sense of one line in the given solution I am reading to this question:
Problem: Let $A_0,A_1,\cdots,A_6$ be a regular $7$-gon. Prove that $\displaystyle \frac1{A_0A_1}=\frac1{A_0A_2}+\frac1{A_0A_3}$.
Solution: Let $\varepsilon = e^{2i\pi/7}$. Take $a_k=\varepsilon^k$ to be the complex coordinates of $A_k$ where $k$ ranges from $0$ to $6$. Rotate $a_1$ (to $a_1^\prime$) and $a_2$ (to $a_2^\prime$) around $a_0$ by $2\pi/7$ and $\pi/7$ radians, respectively, so that they are collinear with $a_3$. It suffices, now, to show that: \begin{equation} \frac1{a_1^\prime-1}=\frac1{a_2^\prime-1}+\frac1{a_3-1} \end{equation}
Why are we justified in writing the above, as opposed to: \begin{equation} \frac1{|a_1^\prime-1|}=\frac1{|a_2^\prime-1|}+\frac1{|a_3-1|} ? \end{equation}
I suspect it has something to do with the fact all three lie on one line, but I am missing something obvious?