What is wrong with my proof?
Let Fourier transform of $f(x)$ exists and be $\mathcal{F}\{f\}(\omega)=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(x)e^{-i\omega x}dx$
We will find the condition of $\frac{d}{d\omega}\mathcal{F}\{f\}(\omega)$ exists
If $\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(x)dx$ exists then
Using Morera's theorem:
$\int_\gamma\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(x)e^{-i\omega x}dxd\omega$=$\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(x)dx\int_\gamma e^{-i\omega x}d\omega$=$\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(x)dx\cdot 0$=$0$
Thus the condition of differentiation of Fourier transform is $\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(x)dx$ exists
However, according to 2 following results:
- Show that the Fourier Transform is differentiable
- Derivative of Fourier transform: $F[f]'=F[-ixf(x)]$
We have the condition of differentiation of Fourier transform is $\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}xf(x)dx$ exists
Which is true?