Can someone clarify this for me please:
If I have a relation R which is of the form A \mapsto (B \mapsto C) and I use the relational inverse operator on R do I get:
(C \mapsto B) \mapsto A) or is it (B \mapsto c) \mapsto A?
Thanks.
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Asaf Karagila
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JMcK
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So, you have a relation relating elements of your first set, $A$, with the second set, $(B\to C)$... that is the second set is a set containing relations from $B$ to $C$... The inverse relation would map your second set (unchanged) to the first set... just like it would if it were $X\to Y$ the inverse relation would be going from $Y$ to $X$... here we just have rather than $Y$ we have $(B\to C)$. – JMoravitz Jun 14 '21 at 15:16
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Thanks. That's really helpful. – JMcK Jun 14 '21 at 16:05