Let $k$ be a algebraically closed field, $A$ a finitely generated $k$-Algebra and $I \subset A$ a maximal ideal. Let $\varphi: k \rightarrow A$ be a ring homomorphism. Why is this combination $$k \rightarrow A \rightarrow A / I$$ an isomorphism?
1 Answers
The general case is not going to be true and here is why: Take $k = \Bbb{C}$, $A = \big(\Bbb{C}(x)\big)[y]$ and $I = (y)$ that is maximal since $\big(\Bbb{C}(x)\big)[y]/(y) \cong \Bbb{C}(x)$ is a field. But now $ \Bbb{C}(x)$ is much bigger than $\Bbb{C}$ (in fact infinite dimensional over $\Bbb{C}$) and so your compositum cannot possibly be an isomorphism.
Your result though is true in the case when $A$ is a finitely generated $k$ - algebra. If $I$ is a maximal ideal then $A/I$ is a finitely generated $k$ - algebra that is a field, and hence by Zariski's lemma is a finite algebraic extension of $k$. Since $k$ is algebraically closed, $A/I = k$ and so your compositum can be viewed as an injective linear map between two $1$ - dimensional vector spaces and thus is an isomorphism.
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Thank you! In my case $A$ is indeed a finitely generated $k$-algebra. – Haderlump Jun 11 '13 at 20:43
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@Haderlump Perhaps you should specify in your question that you are after the case that $A$ is a f.g. $k$ - algebra. – Jun 12 '13 at 03:57