I was reading Almost Impossible Integrals by Cornel, where I encountered this manipulation
$$\sum_{i=1}^n\sum_{j=1}^n \dfrac{1}{ij}= \sum_{i=1}^n \left(\sum_{j=1}^i+\sum_{j=i}^n\right)\dfrac{1}{ij}-\sum_{i=1}^n\dfrac{1}{i^2}$$
I am new to such manipulations, and didn't understand how this works. I know the basics symmetry of summand, but can't deduce this.
Can you please help me understanding this?
Also, after this step, he writes
$$ \sum_{i=1}^n \left(\sum_{j=1}^i+\sum_{j=i}^n\right)\dfrac{1}{ij} = 2\sum_{i=1}^n \sum_{j=1}^i \dfrac{1}{ij}$$
How does this happen?
