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If $R$ noetherian ring, $I \subset R$ proper ideal such that every element of $1+I$ is invertible. Show that: $$\bigcap_{n>0} I^n = (0)$$

Idea: We know that $I \subset J(R)$, with $J(R)$ the Jacobson's ideal of $R$, we want use Nakayama's Lemma

Nakayama's Lemma: If $M$ a finitely generated $R$-module and $I$ an ideal of $R$. If $I \subset J(R)$ and $IM=M$, then $M=(0)$

in our case $I=I$, $M=\bigcap I^n$ is finitely generated because $R$ noetherian, we can't prove that $I (\bigcap I^n) = \bigcap I^n$

  • I'm sorry... what is your question? Are you asking how to show (or whether it is the case) that $I(\cap I^n) = \cap I^n$? Could you clarify? – Arturo Magidin Jun 25 '21 at 00:30
  • @ArturoMagidin yes, if you have some hint to show $I(\cap I^n ) = \cap I^n$ or another solution – Erick David Luna Núñez Jun 25 '21 at 02:13
  • Please clarify your post; don't force people to dig through comments to find what you mean. 2. Let $x\in \cap I^n$, $a\in I$. For each $k\gt 1$, $x\in I^{k-1}$, so $ax\in I^k$.
  • – Arturo Magidin Jun 25 '21 at 02:15
  • (The question I've linked is phrased slightly differently than yours, but both Rithvik Reddy's and my answers to it are sufficiently general so as to resolve your question) – Atticus Stonestrom Jun 25 '21 at 17:54
  • (@Arturo Magidin apologies if I'm being dense, but which inclusion are you trying to show with the argument you give in your comment? to me that seems only to show that the product of $I$ with the intersection is a subset of the intersection, but that's clear anyway since $IJ\subseteq J$ for any ideal $J$ of $R$. the other inclusion is non-trivial to show; see the question I have linked above) – Atticus Stonestrom Jun 25 '21 at 18:07