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Let $f(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[X]$ such that the sequence $(f(n))_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ contains prime numbers infinitely often. Then

  1. $f(x)$ is irreducible.

  2. The leading coefficient of $f$ is positive.

  3. The set $\{f(n):n \in \mathbb{Z}\}$ has no common divisor $>1. \ (\Rightarrow$ The coefficients of $f(x)$ should be relatively prime.)


My Thoughts:

  1. Let $f(x)=g(x)h(x)$ with $g(x)$ and $h(x)$ in $\mathbb{Z}[X]$ of positive degree. Now we note that

$f(x)$ takes prime values infinitely often $\implies$ Either $g(x)$ or $h(x)$ takes the value $\pm 1$ infinitely often. WLOG let

$g(x)$ be the polynomial taking the values $\pm 1$ infinitely often $\implies$ $g(x)$ takes at least one of $1$ or $-1$ infinitely often, let's say it takes $1$ infinitely often.

Then consider a polynomial $G(x)=g(x)-1$. From the above arguments $G(x)$ has infinitely many zeroes in $\mathbb{N}$. Since $\operatorname{deg}(G)=\operatorname{deg}(g)$ which is finite and $\mathbb{Z}$ is an integral domain, we can tell $G$ contains atmost $\operatorname{deg}G$ many zeroes. Contradiction!

Hence $f(x) \ne g(x)h(x)$ with $g(x)$ and $h(x)$ of positive degree $\implies f(x)$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{Z}[X]$.

  1. How do I prove this part?

  2. If $\{f(n):n\in\mathbb{Z}\}$ is an infinite set. What is the definition of $\operatorname{gcd}$ of infinitely many numbers? How do I show that the set $\{f(n):n \in \mathbb{N}\}$ has gcd $1$? Also, How to obtain that the coefficients of $f(x)$ are relatively prime?

Saikat
  • 1,583
  • Can you clarify what 3. is about? Is the goal to show that the set has no common divisor, or is the goal to show the implication statement, which then shouldn't be in brackets. (Brackets tend to suggest that part of the statement can be ignored if no further clarification is needed). $\quad$ In either case, can you explain the case of $ f(x) = 3 $, since it satisfies neither condition? – Calvin Lin Jun 29 '21 at 03:19
  • @CalvinLin The goal is to show that the set has no common divisor except 1. – Saikat Jun 29 '21 at 05:12
  • @CalvinLin The statement in the bracket means that: Given a polynomial if it satisfies 3. then its coefficients will have no common divisors except 1. – Saikat Jun 29 '21 at 05:14

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