It's a confusingly worded problem because the graphs of $f$ and $f^{-1}$ don't necessarily have exactly two intersections, so saying "$A$ and $B$ are the points of intersection" is not really meaningful.
For example $x\mapsto x+1$ has no intersection with its inverse function.
$x\mapsto 2x$ has one point of intersection with its inverse function -- namely $(0,0)$.
$x\mapsto -x$ equals its inverse, so it "intersects" it at every point of its graph. But there are also cases with discrete (and therefore in some sense more "honest") intersections:
$x\mapsto -x^3$ has exactly three points of intersection with its inverse: $(-1,1)$, $(0,0)$, and $(1,-1)$. Here in particular you can see that the intersections don't have to lie on the line $x=y$, and that option (C) can be true.
$x\mapsto \sin(x)+x$ has infinitely many intersections with its inverse. They all lie on the line $x=y$, but if we take $x\mapsto \sin(x)-x$ instead the intersections rather lie on the line $y=-x$.
Finally, you can take the curve $y=\frac{\sin(x)+\sqrt{x^2+1}}2$ and rotate it by 45° around the origin. You get the graph of a function $\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ whose countable infinity of intersections with its inverse function don't even lie on a common line.