Quotient of two metrics on a non empty set $X$ is again a metric or not.
My Attempt:
Case (i) If I take $d$ as $d(x,y) = \frac{d_1(x,y)}{d_2(x,y)}$ then $d$ is not well defined as $d(x,y) \geq 0$
Case(ii) If I take $d$ as $d(x,y) = \frac{d_1}{d_2}(x,y)= \begin{cases}\frac{d_1(x,y)}{d_2(x,y)}, &\text{if }x \neq y \\ 0, &\text{if }x=y. \end{cases}$ then it is well defined.
Here we see clearly that
(1) $d(x,y) \geq 0$, $\forall x,y \in X$
(2) $d(x,y) = 0 \iff x = y, \forall x,y \in X$
(3) $d(x,y) = d(y,x), \forall x,y \in X$
But I have faced a problem in triangle inequality. Please help me by giving some hints or counter examples. Thanks in advance.