Please note before I ask the actual question, the proof's already been done in a previous question, e.g. here, which has also been mentioned below. What I don't understand is a comment on the same question suggesting the user to state $b^5≠0$ in the proof. But doesn't the proposition $b≠0$ itself imply $b^5≠0$. Why mention it explicitly?
Theorem: If $r$ is irrational, then ${ r }^{ \frac { 1 }{ 5 } }$ is irrational
Proof: We prove the contrapositive: if ${ r }^{ \frac { 1 }{ 5 } }$ is rational, then $r$ is rational
Assume that $r^{1/5}$ is rational, then there exists $a,b∈Z$ such that:
${ r }^{ \frac { 1 }{ 5 } }=\frac { a }{ b }$ where $a,b$ are coprime and $b≠0$
Therefore, ${ r }=\frac { a^{ 5 } }{ b^{ 5 } }$
If $a,b∈Z$, then $a^5,b^5∈Z$ as well.
Therefore $r∈Q$
Is this proof incomplete? Are proofs supposed to have redundant arguments or am I missing something?