Let $x,y,z>0$ Prove that:$$(x+y)(y+z)(z+x)\ge8(x+y+z)\sqrt[3]{x^2y^2z^2}$$
Again, I think of Schur, and the inequality is reversed again. By Schur, $$(x+y)(y+z)(z+x)\ge 8xyz$$ and we need to prove $$xyz\ge(x+y+z)\sqrt[3]{x^2y^2z^2}$$ But in fact, $$(x+y+z)\sqrt[3]{x^2y^2z^2}\ge xyz$$ I know my problem is if $a\ge b$,$a\ge c$, it isn't mean that $b\ge c$, please help me with this question and can you give me some experience to get out of this wrong way of thinking so that there can be many new directions?