It is easy to see that if $\prod_{i=1}^n(1-x^{k_i})=\prod_{i=1}^n(1-x^{l_i})$ then $k_i=l_j$ for some $i$ and $j$.
Let $m_i,n_i, (i=1,2, \cdots, 8)$ be positive integers such that
$$[(1-x^{m_1})(1-y^{m_2})+(1-x^{m_2})(1-y^{m_1})][(1-x^{m_3})(1-y^{m_4})+(1-x^{m_4})(1-y^{m_3})](1-x^{m_5})(1-y^{m_6})(1-x^{m_7})(1-y^{m_8})=[(1-x^{n_1})(1-y^{n_2})+(1-x^{n_2})(1-y^{n_1})][(1-x^{n_3})(1-y^{n_4})+(1-x^{n_4})(1-y^{n_3})](1-x^{n_5})(1-y^{n_6})(1-x^{n_7})(1-y^{n_8}).$$ Is it true that $\{m_1,m_2\}=\{n_1,n_2\}$ or $\{n_3,n_4\}$ ?
By putting $x=y$ we conclude (from the above result) that the set $\{m_i:i=1,2, \cdots, 8\} $ is same as the set $\{n_i:i=1,2, \cdots, 8\}$. I believe the above statement is true as well.